What if wages are literally just compensation for energy expenditure?
Consider the following scenarios.
Scenario A:
An Industrialist receives a loan from a Banker on the condition that the Industrialist returns the loan + 15%. The Industrialist uses the entirety of the loan to purchase a workshop that has the capability to be used to produce Luxury Goods. The Industrialist hires a Worker to produce one unit of Luxury Goods. The Worker produces one unit of Luxury Goods using his energy + the capabilities of the workshop. The Industrialist then sells the one unit of Luxury Goods to an Aristocrat for the price of the loan + 20%. The Industrialist uses 5% of the amount to pay the Worker their wage and hands the rest to the Banker.
The Banker "made" 15%.
The Industrialist "made" nothing (but actually owns a workshop now equivalent to the loan).
The Worker "made" their wage.
So loan + 15% + 5%.
Workshop + interest + wage.
And one unit of Luxury Goods is equal to workshop + energy. The Aristocrat was only "charged extra" for the interest.
Scenario B
A Lumpen-Industrialist receives a loan from a Banker. The Lumpen-Industrialist purchases a workshop and declares bankruptcy. Because of some legal loophole fuckery that he abused, the Lumpen-Industrialist gets to keep the workshop without owing a cent. However, the Banker didn't necessarily lose anything aside from public trust, if the loan was actually "virtual money" (money that the Banker didn't physically have but promised to have at a future date).
The Lumpen-Industrialist "made" nothing (but again, actually, now owns a workshop equivalent to the loan).
The Banker "made" nothing (and possibly didn't lose anything except for public trust).
Scenario C
Just replace the Industrialist in Scenario A with a Worker's Co-op. The Worker's Co-op collectively owns the workshop, but still only receives wages in proportion to the energy expenditure, the rest of the money spent being the workshop + interest for the Banker.
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How is it that in all these scenarios, the common pattern of the "profit" for the owners is gaining the workshop itself? Industrialist ends with workshop. Lumpen-Industrialist ends with workshop. Worker's Co-op ends with workshop.
Yes, you need labor to produce one unit of Luxury Goods… with the "help" of the workshop, which is worth the entirety of the loan.
Where is the exploitation as a source of "profit" in these scenarios?