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559 posts and 175 image replies omitted.

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>>2528503
>i consider myself a centre-left liberal, yes
>but this does not have to be synonymous with capitalism
>>2529147
<it pretty much is to everyone except you. name a single prominent centre-left liberal IRL who is actually meaningfully anticapitalist
>>2529391
>in the US, cenk uygur established the "justice democrats" with kyle kulinski to "get money out of politics"

>>2545550
we are #theresistance
>>2545479
exchange-value is the ratio for which one value will trade for another (i.e. its price). hence, the money-form of value for commodity (X) = £2. again, if you read CHAPTER ONE of capital vol. 1, you will understand. marx simply contradicts himself where he says that a price-form may not always entail a value-form, which is an a priori claim by marx without proper demonstration.
>>2545528
if your economic theory cant provide answers for basic questions, then its not worth defending.
>>2545546
>when supply and demand are in equilibrium, they cease to have any influence on price formation.
the price is literally formed by their equilibrium. do you even know what youre saying?
>what remains are direct and indirect labor inputs
you mean production costs?
>One can allow an influence from outside the production process, by temporary fluctuations of supply
supply = production…
>changes in the labor required to produce commodities produce corresponding changes in the money value of the commodity
you mean that increased supply lowers demand?
>The crucial thing to realize is what when you look at prices in equilibrium, it is the average labor inputs in the economy which most directly predict those prices.
as adam smith already affirmed in 1776…
the difference being that labour-time as an abstract quantity which composes commodity prices is something implicit in the wage relation, and so becomes generally expressed by recorded cost inputs, not a metaphysical entity called "labour" beyond this scope. the notion that the value in exchange for commodities correspond to their production costs is affirmed by smith (1776), ricardo (1821), mill (1848) and jevons (1871).
>there is a reason different commodities have different equilibrium prices.
yes; its based on the rate of supply, or "final degree of utility".
>The reason Marx abstracts away those market dynamics…
value is a result of supply and demand to marx; there is no consideration of production outside of what is able to be sold. "value" does not exist prior to sale, since if it did, then "surplus value" wouldnt depend on money "in motion" by the sale of surplus product in the market:
>A commodity proves that it is a commodity in exchange.
https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/1868-syn/ch01.htm#2
<Lastly nothing can have value, without being an object of utility. If the thing is useless, so is the labour contained in it; the labour does not count as labour, and therefore creates no value.
https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/ch01.htm

>>2545122
>yes, and capitalism means the abolition of markets, as adam smith and karl marx write.
Adam Smith described capitalism as a system of “commercial society” based on private property, the division of labor, and accumulation of capital. He did not say capitalism abolishes markets, in fact, markets were the mechanism through which it operated. Marx, on the other hand, argued that capitalism socializes production while privatizing appropriation, the contradiction of capitalism lies in how commodity exchange and wage labor organize production, through markets, where these markets become subordinated to capital accumulation. Under capitalism there is the dominance of capital over labor and production for profit rather than use, the market becomes the primary social relation, and labor power itself becomes a commodity, therefore it destroys the relations that pre-capitalist modes of production maintain by dragging everything into the orbit of commodity exchange and capital accumulation.

>its easy to win when you cheat; thats why we have laws.

You're assuming that “laws” can exist outside of the class relations that produce them. But under capitalism, the law itself is an instrument of class rule, it exists to protect private property and the profit system. The capitalist doesn’t “cheat” when consolidating power; monopolization and concentration of capital are the logical results of capitalist competition. When one firm beats another, it accumulates more capital, expands with economies of scale, changing the rules and gaining more methods of dominating the market, uses that power to crush smaller competitors. This process isn't a violation of the rules, it is the rule. Laws against "cheating" don't stop this; they merely regulate how capital may dominate, not whether it does. Every so-called "anti-trust" or "competition" law in history ends up preserving capitalism, not preventing its tendencies toward monopoly or concentration. It's the natural outcome of competition between capitals. The law only protects the winners who are part of the ruling class, and it will be influenced by these winners who will use money in politics. Any regulation against cheating will not last or will be co-opted by the biggest capitalists.

>you mean that big business can only survive by a conspiracy of state power?

No, the state isn't some conspiracy of big business, it's a necessary precondition for private property itself. The moment ownership becomes separated from direct use, when you have absentee owners claiming land, tools, housing, natural resources that others must work on or live in or have exclusive control of what is needed by the rest of society, you need a permanent institution of organized violence to enforce those claims and this institution separate from society alienates itself from it. That’s the birth of the state. The state doesn’t “corrupt” the market; it creates and maintains the very property relations the market depends on for capital to circulate. Without it, “ownership” would collapse the moment the working population decided to use what it needs directly. Capitalists will always create the state to protect owners from workers and to manage competition among capitalists so the system doesn't tear itself apart. Even in a society with only petty-bourgeois competing, the regional inequality of the best properties and competition will recreate the same capitalist state with capital concentration that the petty-bourgeois themselves will create to prevent the chaos of violence from the working masses and competitors, which will cause property to become collective, ending the imagined private property, or this property will turn into a battlefield that will create a state by some militia. In all cases with private property, the winning property owners will consolidate capital and recreate the same situation with "cheaters"; this is inevitable.

>marx says that this is what capitalists already do, and you support it.

Under capitalism, production is already social; thousands or millions cooperate in producing every commodity, but the results of that collective labor are privately appropriated by the owners of capital. That contradiction is what Marx analyzed as the essence of capitalist property, and the change in the revolution would be to socialize this private appropriation so that this production is collective, planned collectively for the needs of this socialist society, no longer having this privately appropriated collective labor.

>so the sufragettes were "conceding" political power… to themselves? youre entirely contradictory.

When I said rights in bourgeois democracy come as concessions, I was referring to the long struggle of the working class and its allies to win participation in a system originally designed against them. Early capitalist democracies restricted suffrage by property, wealth, or education, plural voting, land qualifications, and other mechanisms excluded the working class entirely. The bourgeoisie didn’t grant voting rights out of principle; it granted them under pressure from organized workers and socialists who were threatening the system’s stability. As for women’s suffrage: bourgeois women fought to remove restrictions imposed by their own class’s property system, the petit-bourgeois woman had the risk of becoming radicalized against capitalism by joining working women if the state did not reform itself to remove the barriers that alienated her while working women fought alongside men to end economic exploitation. These movements overlapped, but they weren't identical. So no, it’s not the suffragettes conceding power to themselves, it’s the ruling class reluctantly opening its political framework to prevent revolutionary upheaval. That’s what “damage control” means in a class context.

>your claim is that the proles petitioned and won universal suffrage, which is false.

Let's take the text you replied to, "There was the problem of the bourgeoisie becoming more conservative and reactionary as time passed," and then I'll take the quotes that address the topic I wrote about:

<The very position the bourgeoisie occupies as a class in capitalist society inevitably causes it to be inconsistent in a democratic revolution. The very position the proletariat occupies as a class compels it to be consistently democratic. The bourgeoisie looks backward, fearing democratic progress, which threatens to strengthen the proletariat.


<Vladimir Ilyich Lenin, 1905, Two Tactics of Social-Democracy in the Democratic Revolution, Chapter 6


https://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1905/tactics/ch06.htm

<But we Marxists all know from theory and from daily and hourly observation of our liberals, Zemstvo people and Orvobozhdentsi, that the bourgeoisie is inconsistent, self-seeking and cowardly in its support of the revolution. The bourgeoisie, in the mass, will inevitably turn towards counterrevolution, towards the autocracy, against the revolution and against the people, immediately its narrow, selfish interests are met, immediately it “recoils” from consistent democracy (and it is already recoiling from it!). There remains the “people,” that is, the proletariat and the peasantry: the proletariat alone can be relied on to march to the end, for it is going far beyond the democratic revolution. That is why the proletariat fights in the front ranks for a republic and contemptuously rejects silly and unworthy advice to take care not to frighten away the bourgeoisie.


<Vladimir Ilyich Lenin, 1905, Two Tactics of Social-Democracy in the Democratic Revolution, Chapter 12


https://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1905/tactics/ch12.htm

<when the Paris uprising found its echo in the victorious insurrections in Vienna, Milan and Berlin; when the whole of Europe right up to the Russian frontier was swept into the movement; when thereupon in Paris, in June, the first great battle for power between the proletariat and the bourgeoisie was fought; when even the victory of its class so shook the bourgeoisie of all countries that it fled back into the arms of the monarchist-feudal reaction which had just been overthrown — there could be no doubt for us, under the circumstances then obtaining, that the great decisive battle had commenced, that it would have to be fought out in a single, long and vicissitudinous period of revolution, but that it could only end in the final victory of the proletariat.


[…]

<And when, as Marx showed in his third article, in the spring of 1850, the development of the bourgeois republic that arose out of the “social” Revolution of 1848 had even concentrated real power in the hands of the big bourgeoisie — monarchistically inclined as it was into the bargain — and, on the other hand, had grouped all the other social classes, peasantry as well as petty bourgeoisie, around the proletariat, so that during and after the common victory, not they but the proletariat grown wise from experience had to become the decisive factor — was there not every prospect then of turning the revolution of the minority into a revolution of the majority?


<Works of Frederick Engels 1895, Introduction to Karl Marx’s The Class Struggles in France 1848 to 1850


https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1895/03/06.htm

>youre utterly confused. you keep claiming that social democracy is actually radical, and then you say that its social fascism. again, make up your mind, schizo.

The communist parties were called social democrats during the Second International; the name change only occurred because of the betrayal by social chauvinism of some member parties who compromised with the national bourgeoisie during the First World War, where those who did not betray changed their names, following Lenin's example. The issue of radical reforms exists if you read the political programs in the Communist Manifesto, Principles of Communism, Demands of the Communist Party in Germany, and The Programme of the Parti Ouvrier as examples used by Marx and Engels. These reforms are not made to vote for and tolerate class conciliators; they are made for the revolutionary workers' party, as a party independent of the bourgeoisie, to use to intensify the class struggle and prepare for the revolutionary situation.

>anyone after 1945?

There's Harry Braverman who worked in various metal-smithing industries in the United States, Víctor Contreras Tapia worked as a tram conductor and later as a machinist for the Valparaíso Electricity Company, joining the Federación Obrera de Chile. But any worker from the intelligentsia who served the proletariat would fit in anyway; you'd find someone who wrote newspapers spreading propaganda and agitation.

>wage labour has existed for milennia, and buying something from someone means mutual gain.

You are wrong, pre-capitalist populations had means of subsistence with means of production, even having to give away part of what was produced. Wage labor is modern, not eternal; the worker does not own the means of production in capitalism. The worker must sell their labor power to survive, and surplus value is extracted by the capitalist because labor power is a commodity. Even when pre-capitalist labor was exchanged, production was primarily oriented to use-value satisfying concrete needs. Capitalism inverts this: production is primarily for exchange, and labor itself is commodified to generate profit. The buying and selling process only creates a dependency on capital and requires a state to maintain itself, which means a portion of the population will be coerced into selling their labor power because the means of production are controlled by owners who simply exist to profit in the market from the needs of the population, thus creating a concentration of capital among the largest property owners.

>why would it? we are all free individuals.

Without collective control of property, meaning a state is maintaining this private property, this means there will be an industrial reserve of unemployed workers to intensify the exploitation of the rest of the workers. This means that these capitalists will concentrate capital by winning the competition, consolidating capital, monopolizing, and maintaining oligopolies. The entire state will be influenced for the benefit of further capital accumulation, where the financialization of the economy will advance with the fall in the rate of profit, which will indebt the population. Your opinion, advocating for the interests of the capitalist class, is irrelevant because of the antagonistic class interest of the proletariat against the capitalist in any case.

>yes, exactly. This is called freedom.

You are free from the means of production that are increasingly concentrated in the hands of capitalists, with a dispossessed population. The only freedom here is for capital to accumulate. So you are not against the social production of this concentrated property, which will be used in appropriation and expropriation against these capitalists during the revolution, so that these means of production can be collectively organized.

>what does this even mean?

It means labor wasn't something sold. In communal societies like clans, villages, early peasantry, even the mir in Russia, people worked as part of the collective reproduction of life, not for a wage or for exchange. In pre-capitalist or communal settings, labor was oriented toward use value, producing what the community actually needed to live. Under capitalism, labor is organized around exchange value, producing not for use, but for sale, for profit.

>you specified "access" to means of production (just like labour), now its "ownership" and "control". youre inconsistent.

If property is collectively owned by the entire society, it does not belong to a specific group or person. Therefore, there is no difference because this property will be collectively organized according to use and need. This means collective access, collective control, and society owns it collectively because it is not separate from the use to meet the needs of this society.

>you specified "access" to means of production (just like labour), now its "ownership" and "control". youre inconsistent.

If property is collective to the whole society, it does not belong to a specific group or person, therefore there is no difference because this property will be collectively organized according to use and need. This means collective access, collective control, and society owns it collectively because it is not separate from the use to meet the needs of this society. But this is an achievement of the proletariat organized collectively with other workers and revolutionaries to gain power as the new ruling class that will abolish social classes; this is not an isolated natural right of yours.

>can workers vote themselves out of a communist society?

No. You only organize collective resources to maintain social equality and meet the needs of the population. Taking away the means of production that are collectively organized from society so that some can own them means depriving other workers of access to the necessities of what is being collectively organized in solidarity with all workers. This is sabotage of collective property to deprive other workers of access and coerce them.

>translated it for you. try to be more succinct.

So you're fantasizing about entrepreneurs and small business owners as if they were different in exploiting workers? People close to me have been used by these types of businessmen who ran away without paying workers' wages and abused them even more. Why should I give importance to smaller capitalists who can only survive because the state gives them privileges to exploit workers even more? The only important factor is controlling the means of production collectively, organized without the logic of profiting in the market, but rather supplying the needs of society for its use value. Monopoly is inevitable and facilitates this property being appropriated and expropriated from the capitalist to be collectively organized by the workers. How can you prevent a capitalist from concentrating capital and using part of their capital to influence politics for their own class interest in accumulating more capital? A monopoly that is collectively organized, belonging to the whole society, and that does not produce goods to profit in the market through exchange value, is not a problem because it is an economic democracy organized by society to meet the needs of the population, since this monopoly has been socialized.

>>2545122
>so again, youre a slave master keeping humans under your control and putting them in concentration camps when they disobey. the people have no freedom, only the party does.
The popular workers' councils and their elected delegates do not need to be party members to be elected or participate. Members of the communist party have more responsibility than other ordinary workers, more duties and fewer privileges, with more severe punishments. Furthermore, delegates can always be recalled when necessary. How can I be a slave master without owning private property and having no way to accumulate capital? It's not within my control; the dictatorship of the proletariat will maintain the proletariat as the dominant class as long as the state doesn't wither away due to the absence of global socialist hegemony. Your opinion is irrelevant, and re-education doesn't require camps. This is a better solution for correcting antisocial behavior by changing the individual's environment to prepare them for collective work and solidarity with other workers than retributive punishment within the criminal justice system of capitalist countries. Of course, counter-revolutionary action and collaboration with capitalist imperialism will receive more severe punishments for denying the supremacy of the proletarian class as the dominant class, unless it was a problem of lack of information or behavioral disturbance. In this case, it's irrelevant how the dictatorship of the proletariat acts, as long as it maintains the supremacy of the proletarian class.

>so its very clear that you imagine yourself as a dictator and project these narcissistic fantasies as your politics.

Why would I consider myself a dictator if I don't value inefficient air travel to other countries that has nothing to do with the needs of the workers? Workers, by acquiring the means of production, can produce what they need. Travel for study, occupying another location will be available to these workers to meet their needs, including leisure. Workers in poor, underdeveloped countries where I live do not have the privilege of travel to other countries available to the common working population. I only care about the class interests of the proletariat to acquire political supremacy, with workers acting together, organized as a class, and not for the petty interests of the petty bourgeoisie or apologists for the bourgeois class.

>you want to lock the world inside walls and fences; you dont believe in "vacation". and all the rest of your yapping just proves your totalitarianism. you dont believe in freedom or fun; you just believe in yourself. you have a personality disorder postured as intellect.

I have already stated that workers traveling between socialist countries are available to avoid exploiting other workers; vacation spots will be publicly maintained for leisure and responsibly maintained by the occupant during their time of use. Upon vacancy, these spots will receive collective maintenance from the local council in accordance with the economic plan. Leisure, recreational and community activities, and culture are available to the population for their enjoyment without profit or intellectual property rights.

>>2546113
>the price is literally formed by their equilibrium.
wrong. supply and demand, when not in equilibrium, cause price to deviate from labor inputs, when in equilibrium, price is just value. If supply and demand "formed" price like Zeus "formed" Athena then every commodity would have the exact same equilibrium price.

>>2546320
>>2546322
>He did not say capitalism abolishes markets, in fact, markets were the mechanism through which it operated.
<But the rate of profit does not, like rent and wages, rise with the prosperity and fall with the declension of the society. On the contrary, it is naturally low in rich and high in poor countries, and it is always highest in the countries which are going fastest to ruin. The interest of this third order, therefore, has not the same connection with the general interest of the society as that of the other two […] It is by this superior knowledge of their own interest that they have frequently imposed upon his generosity, and persuaded him to give up both his own interest and that of the public, from a very simple but honest conviction that their interest, and not his, was the interest of the public. The interest of the dealers, however, in any particular branch of trade or manufactures, is always in some respects different from, and even opposite to, that of the public. To widen the market and to narrow the competition, is always the interest of the dealers. To widen the market may frequently be agreeable enough to the interest of the public; but to narrow the competition must always be against it, and can serve only to enable the dealers, by raising their profits above what they naturally would be, to levy, for their own benefit, an absurd tax upon the rest of their fellow-citizens.
https://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/smith-adam/works/wealth-of-nations/book01/ch11c-3.htm
>under capitalism, the law itself is an instrument of class rule
yes, and in the bourgeois character of democracy, representation should belong to property owners, with property ownership being expanded within the citizenry.
>The moment ownership becomes separated from direct use, when you have absentee owners claiming land, tools, housing, natural resources that others must work on or live in or have exclusive control of what is needed by the rest of society, you need a permanent institution of organized violence to enforce those claims and this institution separate from society alienates itself from it.
yes, all of this falls under what john locke would characterise as illegitimate property, the rights of which belong to the labourers who work on it. this is a prevailing line of classical liberal thought from locke (1680) down to murray rothbard (1979).
>The state doesn’t “corrupt” the market; it creates and maintains the very property relations the market depends on for capital to circulate.
you are here supposing no difference between capitalist and pre-capitalist property relations via the market.
>The bourgeoisie didn’t grant voting rights out of principle; it granted them under pressure from organized workers and socialists who were threatening the system’s stability.
i disagree with the framing. the progress of suffrage is an individualistic journey, which abandons the old representative systems which existed prior and following from the reform act of 1832 (e.g. the acts of union, 1707). movements like women's suffrage and "devolution" in the UK show the concept of self-government better than collective government. the market is also a natural and liberal democracy where every worker has the right to vote.
>The issue of radical reforms exists
give some meaningful examples.
>Wage labor is modern, not eternal
i never claimed that its eternal, but that its ancient, which is true. wage labour in itself is not "modern".
>Your opinion, advocating for the interests of the capitalist class
where do i do this? its capitalists and communists which both deny individuality and freedom, not me.
>You are free from the means of production
i am free from "the community". stick to the context.
>It means labor wasn't something sold. In communal societies like clans, villages, early peasantry, even the mir in Russia, people worked as part of the collective reproduction of life, not for a wage or for exchange.
we still work "as part of the collective reproduction of life". would you rather be paid in wages or consumables?
>Under capitalism, labor is organized around exchange value, producing not for use, but for sale, for profit.
and how do they make profit? by selling people utilities.
>If property is collectively owned by the entire society, it does not belong to a specific group or person.
this is just a contradiction in terms; if all property was owned by everyone, then i would own you while you owned me, which is an ungovernable formula.
>society owns it collectively because it is not separate from the use to meet the needs of this society
as margaret thatcher and murray rothbard say: there is no such thing as "society"; only individuals. the person youre identifying with "society" is "the state" and in the state, the dictator, who owns everybody else.
>No
so workers have power over themselves, yet are not allowed to make certain political decisions? who will stop them except a class enemy (i.e. the bureaucracy)?
>So you're fantasizing about entrepreneurs and small business owners as if they were different in exploiting workers?
where do i do this?
>Members of the communist party have more responsibility than other ordinary workers
right, so as george orwell designates it in 1984, you have the proles, the outer party and the inner party. this is a class structure, not a classless anarchy.
>I have already stated that workers traveling between socialist countries are available to avoid exploiting other workers
what would be the harm in travelling to a capitalist country?

>>2546390
>this is a class structure
Class =/= hierarchy. Membership in the party had nothing to do with relations of production as such. A bureaucrat and a worker in the USSR were both state employees, and while the former may enjoy some privileges or higher living standards, these were paltry to what you see in actual capitalist or feudal societies. The wealth gap between the richest and poorest Soviet citizens was about 1:5. In the US the average CEO to worker income ratio is more like 1:300.

File: 1762106887384.webp (8.31 KB, 310x174, O'Brien.webp)

>>2546346
>supply and demand, when not in equilibrium, cause price to deviate from labor inputs, when in equilibrium, price is just value.
so the equilibrium is still a price, right?
>If supply and demand "formed" price like Zeus "formed" Athena then every commodity would have the exact same equilibrium price.
why? there are different rates of supply.
>>2546356
it seems as though the real issue is presuming a "value" apart from what is given in price.
>>2546394
Class =/= hierarchy
hierarchy = power. does comrade stalin get one vote?
>while the former may enjoy some privileges or higher living standards, these were paltry to what you see in actual capitalist or feudal societies
youre literally describing a class structure by directly comparing it to capitalist society. and why do pencil pushers get paid more than the soviet masses anyway? why are people put in gulags for thought-crimes while beria gets promotions? class inequality?

>>2546400
>? why are people put in gulags for thought-crimes while beria gets promotions?
NTA but it wasn't your ordinary worker getting sent off on political charges, these were pencil-pusher on pencil-pusher crimes, who cares.

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>>2546404
you mean that the outer party was punished by the inner party, just like in mao's cultural revolution?
>who cares
people who value truth and justice.
now get back to work, prole.

>>2546406
absurd anti-communism.
Comrade Stalin repeatedly requested to resign his position, and was turned down by the soviet elected officials. Regardless of any mistakes or scandals, the USSR was a true proletarian democracy, regardless of your cartoonish western historical propaganda. When scandal strikes or mistakes are made in western bourgeois democracies, they do not take it as a repudiation of their entire ideology - why do you do this for yours?

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>>2546454
why did class inequalities between the people and the party persist into the establishment of communism? could it be that the vanguard intellectuals who come to take on "resonsibility" are themselves a separate class who thus possess the state as a tool of their own power? a democracy is rule of the demos (citizenry). we dont have this in the west, we have an oligarchy (rule of the few). it appears to be the same way in the USSR where it was rule by the party (bureaucracy). as carl schmitt says, power is held by its exception to the law, and so whoever is permitted to be criminal is in power (e.g. trump, beria). this hypocrisy is part of class dictatorship as the law becomes a weapon against the innocent (e.g. "anarcho-tyranny", t. samuel francis). when there are two codes of law, you have injustice.

it shouldnt be so hard to ask why beria wasnt punished, unless he was "above" the law of the proletarians. as maximilien robespierre said (1792):
<[the king] must die because the nation must live.
https://revolution.chnm.org/items/show/526

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>>2546113
>we are #theresistance

>>2546400
>youre literally describing a class structure
no they are both workers. differences in compensation dont change relations to production

>>2546400
>so the equilibrium is still a price, right?
specifically it is a price that best reflects cost of production, i.e. labor inputs, whether that labor is indirect labor (i.e. the labor used to procure raw materials, make means of production, etc.) or direct labor (i.e. labor used to directly produced the commodity)
>why? there are different rates of supply.
If supply and demand are in equilibrium they no longer explain anything. Supply and demand only explain deviation of a price from the cost of production, i.e. labor inputs, whether that labor is indirect labor (i.e. the labor used to procure raw materials, make means of production, etc.) or direct labor (i.e. labor used to directly produced the commodity)

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chat is this tru?

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>>2546764
>no they are both workers
and a king just occupies a different position within the division of labour of the workforce… he's paid more because he has to take on more "responsibility".
>differences in compensation
why would a pencil-pusher be paid more than a typical prole unless they are rigging the system in their favour? plato had the perfect solution, which is to lower the salary of officials to the minimum wage permitted. only this can secure justice, since it separates power from income.
>>2546946
>it is a price that best reflects cost of production
right, so what you call "value" is still just a price.
>If supply and demand are in equilibrium they no longer explain anything
they explain demand equating with supply.
>Supply and demand only explain deviation of a price from the cost of production
the "cost of production" is still a price reflected by a balance in supply and demand, as you have admitted.
>>2547150
yes. without welfare, the market would "correct" itself to only appeal to effective consumers, which would be a lower sample, thus raising prices by diminished production. you would necessarily increase crime while increasing prices, which is a bad combination. it can seem like ransom, but these are what make the public complacent to the current order (e.g. bread and circus). you can read unemployment and benefits statistics in the UK here: >>2545190

marxeuhhhh made-uhhh a critique-euhhhh of political euhhh economy euhhhhh and you're engaging in politikeuuuuhlll economy-uhhhhh

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>Consequently it was the analysis of the prices of commodities that alone led to the determination of the magnitude of value, and it was the common expression of all commodities in money that alone led to the establishment of their characters as values.
https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/ch01.htm
<The difference between real value and exchange-value is based on a fact – namely, that the value of a thing differs from the so-called equivalent given for it in trade; i.e., that this equivalent is not an equivalent. This so-called equivalent is the price of the thing, and if the economist were honest, he would employ this term for “value in exchange.” But he has still to keep up some sort of pretence that price is somehow bound up with value, lest the immorality of trade become too obvious. It is, however, quite correct, and a fundamental law of private property, that price is determined by the reciprocal action of production costs and competition. This purely empirical law was the first to be discovered by the economist; and from this law he then abstracted his “real value,” i.e., the price at the time when competition is in a state of equilibrium, when demand and supply cover each other. Then, of course, what remains over are the costs of production and it is these which the economist proceeds to call “real value,” whereas it is merely a definite aspect of price. Thus everything in economics stands on its head. Value, the primary factor, the source of price, is made dependent on price, its own product. As is well known, this inversion is the essence of abstraction; on which see Feuerbach.https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1844/df-jahrbucher/outlines.htm

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an excerpt from noel thompson's "the people's science" (1984) on "smithian socialism" (p. 86). this then proves that adam smith was taken up as an anti-capitalist thinker early on (1816-34, as per thompson's subtitle).

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>>2547194
>right, so what you call "value" is still just a price.
specifically the point is to focus on the production process and ignore the market factors to better understand the exploitation of the working class. When it comes to understanding exploitation, supply and demand are just noise. You use different models for understanding different phenomena.
>the "cost of production" is still a price reflected by a balance in supply and demand, as you have admitted.
you care too much about the abstract question of whether value is just price or not and you use that question to ignore exploitation which is Marx's focus.

for the record I was never arguing, btw, that value isn't price, I was arguing that supply and demand are not sufficient to explain price. Different commodities have different equilibrium prices. To understand why this is, you have to forget about the market for a moment and look at production, where exploitation of labor occurs.

>>2547549
>specifically the point is to focus on the production process and ignore the market factors
"value" does not exist outside of the market.
>supply and demand are not sufficient to explain price.
there is no market price outside of supply and demand.
>Different commodities have different equilibrium prices.
yes, based on different rates of supply…

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>>2547557
>yes, based on different rates of supply…

which is based on different costs of production, which is based on the organic composition of capital, which is based on indirect and direct labor inputs.

Marx, Smith and Ricardo are in agreement here, SmithAnon.

Ignore Marx's Hegelian abstraction of "Value" (essence) from "Price" (appearance) and just think of it as the natural price. What is the rate of supply, or the scarcity, is scarcely (haha) distinguishable from the socially necessary labor time.

>>2547549
its advisable to read this formula from william stanley jevons, in which he attempts to defend ricardo by a marginalist revision; t. "the theory of political economy", chapter iv, sect. 25, "the origin of value" (1871):
(1) Cost of production determines supply.
(2) Supply determines final degree of utility.
(3) Final degree of utility determines value.

so to say, the lesser cost of production per commodity, the lesser its value by an increased rate of supply. thus, if the cost of production per commodity is higher, its value in exchange (price) will be higher by a diminished rate of supply, so equilibrium coincides at different rates.
>>2547567
you are not distinguishing between labour accounted for as cost, and labour performed as purposive activity; thats my only issue. "labour" is not a "substance" which congeals into products, it is a statistic of production, represented by the (real) wage. you cannot measure "labour", you can only measure labour's product.

>Keynes once remarked that "the youth had no religion save communism and this was worse than nothing." Marxism "was founded upon nothing better than a misunderstanding of Ricardo", and, given time, he (Keynes) "would deal thoroughly with the Marxists" and other economists to solve the economic problems their theories "threaten to cause". In 1925, Keynes said "the class war will find me on the side of the educated bourgeoisie.
hmmmmmmmmm

>>2547194
>a king … paid more
no lol
>be paid more than a typical
because education increases the value of their labor

>>2547604
>you are not distinguishing between labour accounted for as cost, and labour performed as purposive activity; thats my only issue.

laborers who do not perform purposive activity get fired. Their labor-power has to be purposive for it to be profitable to the capitalist. For the capitalist, a worker's labor-power must cost less than it produces, otherwise the capitalist will either have to fire the worker, or go bankrupt.

>"labour" is not a "substance" which congeals into products,


ok, that's fine.


>it is a statistic of production, >represented by the (real) wage.


A statistic of production that determines why one commodity has a higher or lower equilibrium price than another, our above topic of discussion.

>you cannot measure "labour", you can only measure labour's product.


commodities are products of indirect and direct labor, yes, that is what I am saying. Rate of supply is based on cost of production. Cost of production is based on the organic composition of capital. The organic composition of capital is determined by indirect and direct labor inputs.

You can however measure labor power as commodified labor. And what does it cost to bring the worker back to the workplace for one additional day of work? It costs a day of shelter, a day of food, a day of water, a good night's sleep, etc. This subsistence costs society something, and that regulates the cost of labor power. If a worker is paid below this cost of subsistence, they will grow ill and perish. If they are paid above it, they are eating into the capitalist's profit. So the capitalist tries to pin the wage as closely to the subsistence as possible, to avoid killing workers and making them more scarce (a double mistake since workers are also consumers of commodities). But they also avoid paying the worker above subsistence since that would eat into profits. What this reveals is that profit is just wages expropriated through the private ownership over the means of production, which means of production are just products of past labor (i.e. indirect labor), which was also exploited.

>>2547618
>because education increases the value of their labor
what makes them more productive than the plebs?
>>2547620
>A statistic of production that determines why one commodity has a higher or lower equilibrium price than another
yes, so now its simple arithmetic.
input costs, not an immeasurable "labour" input.
>the capitalist tries to pin the wage as closely to the subsistence as possible
wages rise in proportion to marginal productivity, so its out of the capitalists' hands, which is why the only weapon he has is unemployment. thus as production increases per capital, there is greater unemployment. lowering wages would disturb the law of value by overemployment and cause a declining total product. this is why having separate capitals in a market facilitates the capacity for employment, as against the tendency of monopolies to impoverish societies. this is also why the anon ive been speaking to has run into a contradiction where at once he supports monopoly by state ownership, yet speaks on full employment. without an adequate division of labour, you cannot have this condition, thus making markets the most effective method of distributing employment. if everyone worked at the same factory, you have overemployment and thus declining total product. the forces of progress can only march against profit.
>profit is just wages expropriated through the private ownership over the means of production
in jevonian terms, the capitalist gains surplus utility from the worker, which is also marx's concept:
<In every country in which the capitalist mode of production reigns, it is the custom not to pay for labour-power before it has been exercised for the period fixed by the contract, as for example, the end of each week. In all cases, therefore, the use-value of the labour-power is advanced to the capitalist: the labourer allows the buyer to consume it before he receives payment of the price; he everywhere gives credit to the capitalist
https://www.marxists.org/archive/marx/works/1867-c1/ch06.htm

Are artists the proletariat?

>>2547720
>what makes them more productive than the plebs?

not the same anon, but receiving education is a lot of work that you're expected to pay for up front. Really higher wages are just paying you back for they ears of tuition and unpaid labor. If receiving education were not only free, but paid a wage, then educated workers would probably be paid much more normal wages at their final job. But another way to look at it is the process of gathering that knowledge and putting it into a curriculum in the first place was an act of previous labor as well. So those students are having their labor augmented by the teachers and by the original discoverers of the knowledge that the teachers teach.

>>2547720
ok, but why insist on putting all this in bourgeois economic terms that focus on "supply and demand" and "marginal utility" if Marx says the same thing? Marx is saying the same thing, but in different terms, because his standpoint is to educate the worker about their own exploitation. Your goal is to simply describe economics as scholastically as possible, but since the ruling ideas are the ideas of the ruling class, this augments the bourgeois standpoint and diminishes the proletarian standpoint. Marx emphasizes the proletarian standpoint by focusing on subsistence and surplus. You emphasize the bourgeois standpoint while allegedly saying the same thing because you imagine it is more "objective" but really it is just more sanitized, academic, and curated for a bourgeois scholastic audience.

This is why when I say that "rates of supply"
>is based on different costs of production, which is based on the organic composition of capital, which is based on indirect and direct labor inputs.

you object because you don't like this all getting brought back to standpoint of the exploitation of labor even if it says the exact same thing you're saying, just in more politically clear terms intended to rabble rouse.

>>2547823
Proletariat

"The proletariat is that class in society which lives entirely from the sale of its labour power and does not draw profit from any kind of capital; whose weal and woe, whose life and death,whose sole existence depends on the demand for labour…

How did the proletariat originate?

"The Proletariat originated in the industrial revolution… [which was] precipitated by the discovery of the steam engine, various spinning machines, the mechanical loom, and a whole series of other mechanical devices. These machines, which were very expensive and hence could be bought only by big capitalists, altered the whole mode of production and displaced the former workers, because the machines turned out cheaper and better commodities than the workers could produce with their inefficient spinning wheels and handlooms. The machines delivered industry wholly into the hands of the big capitalists and rendered entirely worthless the meagre property of the workers (tools, looms, etc.). The result was that the capitalists soon had everything in their hands and nothing remained to the workers…

"labour was more and more divided among the individual workers so that the worker who previously had done a complete piece of work now did only a part of that piece. This division of labour made it possible to produce things faster and cheaper. It reduced the activity of the individual worker to simple, endlessly repeated mechanical motions which could be performed not only as well but much better by a machine. In this way, all these industries fell, one after another, under the dominance of steam, machinery, and the factory system, just as spinning and weaving had already done.

Fredrick Engels
Principles of Communism

In proportion as the bourgeoisie, i.e., capital, is developed, in the same proportion is the proletariat, the modern working class, developed – a class of labourers, who live only so long as they find work, and who find work only so long as their labour increases capital. These labourers, who must sell themselves piecemeal, are a commodity, like every other article of commerce.

Karl Marx
Communist Manfesto: Bourgeois and Proletarians

Will robots replace the proletariat (at least on fabrics)? Is that good or bad?

>>2547848
workers create, maintain, calibrate, lubricate, update, repair, and dispose of machinery, software, and other automated systems

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>>2544010
>wow, maybe you finally get it. capitalism ≠ markets.

>>2519820
>right, so all who disagree with the dear leader get put in a concentration camp where their slave labour is extracted. very progressive.
from each according to their ability, to each according to their need. is this not fair? If you allow some people to not contribute what they are able, they either become parasitic on the whole system, whether they constitute a ruling class, or a criminalized underclass is besides the point.

>>2547855
but what if robots end up being capable of doing that. Would this lead to a form of slave economy?

>>2547877
if you consider livestock and convict leasing we already have a slave economy. Sentient robots would just be a third type of slave. A proletarian sells their labor-power as a commodity to a capitalist one work shift at a time. A slave is sold by a slave owner to another slave owner as a commodity.

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Gonna make the next thread soon

>>2547867
That's fucking retarded; since markets produce capitalist relations

>>2547416
Marx writes a lot of things about Smith in CH3 of Theories of Surplus Value

>>2547881
so basically we will see the economy be more of a slave economy but we will probably still have some proles

OH GOD I NEED TO SLEEP

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>>2547883
markets predate capitalist relations
>>2547886
I think it is possible to abolish the exploitation of human labor. I don't think "robot slavery" is as bad as livestock and prisoners unless you go out of your way to make the robots capable of suffering or resenting the position they are in.

>>2547888
> I don't think "robot slavery" is as bad as livestock and prisoners unless you go out of your way to make the robots capable of suffering or resenting the position they are in.

gotcha we will just make the robots enjoy their "enslavement". Or at least feel nothing.
If they feel pleasure regarding their slavery, then is it really bad?

>>2547888
Yeah and the brought us here exactly because they are functional to commodity production and thus reproduce capitalist relations

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new thread >>2547894


>>2547893
take it up with lenin

>>2547720
>what makes them more productive than the plebs?
the reproduction of their labor includes the resources that went into it, for any skilled labor this includes their education. this is as true in smith as it is in marx

>>2547842
>just in more politically clear terms
ive said as much before. he wont admit its a political choice. he instead demands transparency honesty and humbleness from others but not for himself in everything from economics to epistemology to ontology while claiming to uphold kantian morality


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